Paul pretends to quote Psalm 14, but then intentionally misrepresents the meaning as presented by the psalmist. Why are you okay with that? Why does this deception serve as plank-one for salvation? Why are you not angry at Paul for misquoting my God?

What's the straight answer? How is one justified? Faith only as Paul says? Or by works as James says? Does the TRADITION of Infallibility obligate you proclaim these two doctrines as identical even though we can clearly see they're not?

Why is the 'confess with thy mouth' approach to salvation most often used when Jesus directly refutes it? When Jesus specified the qualifications much more restrictive, was he misinformed? Was he less qualified on the subject than Paul?