Christianity loves to tie its own 'new covenant' back to Jeremiah 31, but will almost never tie it back to where it originated, in Deuteronomy 30. Why? Could it be because it doesn't fit modern Christian doctrine?

We can receive no greater gift than a relationship with God. Romans 5:6-11,18-21

Why does Christianity insist 'no forgiveness without shedding of blood' when Yehovah clearly says charity atones for sin?

Why does Christianity insist 'no forgiveness without shedding of blood' when the Paralytic was clearly forgiven WITHOUT any blood?

Only Jesus can take care of our need for forgiveness. Luke 5:17-26.

Why is the concept of repentance completely removed from the healing of the paralytic story? Why is a sin egregious enough to cause paralysis not identified so it can be avoided?

Was God mistaken when he called Ezekiel Son of Man? Could Ezekiel forgive sins as Jesus claims?

Jesus illustrated forgiveness of sin caused healing. Does that no longer work in ways that could be verified?

Why do we find God disputing an automatic relationship between sin and affliction, punishing those that promote it, yet Jesus affirming an automatic relationship?