If a prophecy exists that includes miracles that surpass those seen in the days of Moses, why isn't every preacher on every street corner talking about it??

Paul confidently references a prophecy that seemingly doesn't exist. Can you find it? Or was Paul just bluffing hoping those at Corinth would just take his word for it?

What's the straight answer? How is one justified? Faith only as Paul says? Or by works as James says? Does the TRADITION of Infallibility obligate you proclaim these two doctrines as identical even though we can clearly see they're not?

Why is the 'confess with thy mouth' approach to salvation most often used when Jesus directly refutes it? When Jesus specified the qualifications much more restrictive, was he misinformed? Was he less qualified on the subject than Paul?

Why does the writer of Hebrews try to make it sound like God neglected Israel when he in truth was a faithful husband? What agenda did he have altering God's own words as delivered to the prophet?

Did MY GOD bring our people out in the middle of the desert to TRAP them in bondage while saying he did the opposite? Do you stand by Paul in this accusation?